From: Christian Szegedy (szegedy@or.uni-bonn.de)
Date: Wed Aug 25 2004 - 07:50:53 MDT
Tomaz Kristan wrote:
>On Wed, 25 Aug 2004 12:09:33 +0200, Christian Szegedy
><szegedy@or.uni-bonn.de> wrote:
>
>
>
>>No. The problem arises while defining the notion "after infinitely"
>>many shakes".
>>
>>
>
>Yes. I shake it once. Then again after 1/2 of a second. And again
>after 1/4 of a second. And again after 1/8 of a second. And so on.
>
>It's shaken and stirred after 1 second.
>
>
>
Let x=1. Multiply it by -1 after 1/2 second. Multiply it again after 1/4
second,
And again after 1/8 of a second. And so on...
What is the value of x after 1 second?
Do you see that your definition is not formalizable?
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