From: Stathis Papaioannou (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Mar 05 2007 - 04:08:34 MST
Oops, here's the link:
On 3/5/07, Stathis Papaioannou <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
> On 3/5/07, Mohsen Ravanbakhsh <email@example.com> wrote:
> A brief article by Dan Dennett:
> > http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,1580363,00.html
> > If there's no way to distinguish them objectively, does it mean they're
> > the same subjectively?
> > If they're not the same that way, what is the nature of that
> > distinguishing quality?
> See this recent post by Jesse Mazer on the subject of David Chalmer's
> "fading qualia" argument. I should emphasise that my response about the
> possibility of being deluded into not noticing that the qualia were fading
> is not really very plausible, being in actual clinical cases due to specific
> neurological defects rather than general loss of brain function.
> Stathis Papaioannou
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Sat May 18 2013 - 04:01:08 MDT